> If f1(N) = 2N and f2(N) = 3N, why are they both O(N), since 3N is larger than 2N for N>=1?

If f1(N) = 2N and f2(N) = 3N, why are they both O(N), since 3N is larger than 2N for N>=1?

If f1(N) = 2N and f2(N) = 3N, why are they both O(N), since 3N is larger than 2N for N>=1?

Posted at： 2014-12-18　
Because O() doesn't care about the coefficients. They are insignificant in relation to powers (N*N).
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